PRELIMS मतलब MAD

Answer – (d)

Explanation:

The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of government which is federal in structure with certain unitary features.

About Unitary Features of the Constitution: In a unitary structure there is only one government for the whole country and the power is centralised. Unitary features of constitution includes:

• Appointment of Governor
• Flexibility of Constitution
• Single Constitution
• No territorial integrity / Indestructible states
• Integrated Judiciary
• All India Services
• Veto over State Bills

About Federal Features of the Constitution: In a federation there are two distinct levels of governments. There is one government for the whole country which is called the Union or Central Government. Also there is a government for each Unit/State.

Federal features of the constitution includes:

• Division of Power
• Written constitution
• Rigidity of the Constitution
• Supremacy of the Constitution
• Impartial & Independent Judiciary

Thus, 1 and 4 are correct. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Answer – (b)

Explanation:

About Habeas Corpus: The meaning of the word Habeas Corpus is ‘to have the body of’. It is used to enforce the fundamental right of individual liberty when somebody is under unlawful detention. An application under this can be filed by family members. A stranger can also file an application in public interest. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

About Quo Warranto: Literal meaning of Quo-Warranto is ‘by what authority or warrant.’ This type of writ is used when an illegal usurpation of a public office by a person is done. After this writ is issued, the legality of a claim of a person to office is enquired. It is issued when a public office is wrongfully assumed by a private person. Hence statement 2 is correct.

About Mandamus: It means we command. This type of writ is used when a public official or public body or corporation or lower court or tribunal or even the government has not done the needed duty or refused to do so. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Answer – (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Religious endowments and institutions come under Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.

Therefore, both the Centre and states can legislate on the subject.

Statement 2 is correct: Muslims and Christians manage their places of worship and religious institutions through boards or trusts run by the community.

Statement 3 is correct: In the case of many Hindu, Sikh, Jain, and Buddhist places of worship, however, the government exercises considerable control.

Several states including Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan have enacted laws that give the government the power to administer temples, their incomes and expenditures.

States draw their power to enact such legislation from Article 25(2) of the Constitution.

It says that the government can make laws “regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice”, and “providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus”.

Answer – (d)

Explanation:

About the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023: The aim of BSA is to consolidate and to provide general rules and principles as evidence for fair trial. It replaces the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

Statement 1 is correct: The scope of secondary evidence has been expanded to include copies made from original by mechanical processes, copies made from or compared with the original, counterparts of documents as against the parties who did not execute them and oral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it.

The definition of primary evidence has been expanded to include electronic or digital record which is created or stored, electronic or digital record produced from proper custody.

Statement 2 is correct: A provision has been added to bar Courts from inquiring into any privileged communication between Ministers and the President of India. Therefore, it provides for Privileged communication between Ministers and President.

Statement 3 is correct: A new section has been added to provide for admissibility of electronic or digital record.

Answer – (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: As per section-14 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament, Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of the Central Government. The office of President is not under the jurisdiction of Lokpal.

Lokpal shall also have jurisdiction over institutions receiving foreign donations in excess of ten lakh rupees per year.

The chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Centre are also under the jurisdiction of Lokpal.

Statement 2 is not correct: The person who is not the resident of India can file a complaint in the office of Lokpal by attaching a photocopy of his/her passport as proof of identity.

Statement 3 is not correct: According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act of 2013, at least 50% of the members must be from Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Minorities, and women.

Additional information: The Chairperson and other members of Lokpal are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and they hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.